Important topics on Indian Polity

Important topics on Indian Polity

Important topics – Indian Polity

1.ConstituentAssembly : Formation,Members,Election,Dis cussions,Decisions,Committes, Adoptation, Commencement-Preamble

2.StatesNewFormation :

Part ABCD States,Reorganisation Act, Linguistic State,Formation-Parliament-Art 3 and 4-Cessation

3.Citizenship :

Citizenship Act 1955-5, methods of Acquiring,Loosing

4.Fundamental Rights :

Definition of Fundamental-Constitutional-Human Rights-6 Kinds-Available to Citizens only-Suspension of-5 kinds of Writs-Public Interest Litigation-Art 12-35

5.Directive Principles :

Defn-Difference from Fundamental Rights,Welfare State, Art 40,43,44,45,46,50,51-Uniform Civil Code

6.Fundamental duties :

Art 51 A-10 concepts added through 42nd Amendment

7.President :

Election,Qualfn and disqualfn-Powers-Privileges-Impeachment-Art 74 -Not controlled by Art 74

8.Parliament :

2 Houses, Qualfn,Disqualfn,Defection, SpeakerCommittes, Joint Sitting,Privilege,Money Bill Ordinance Making Power of President

9.Supreme Court :

Chief Justice and Others-Qualfn-Appointment-Removal-Adhoc Judges-Original, Appellate Jurisdiction-Special Leace Petition-Advisory Opinion-Judicial Precedent

10.CAG :

Appt-Powers-Constitutional Safeguard-Jurisdiction

11.Governor :

Appt-Qualfn-Tenure-Powers-How better placed than President,Art 200 Ordinance

12.State Legislature :

Two Houses-Qualfn-Disqualfn-Powers-Creation or Abolition of Council

13.Judiciary :

Qualfn-Removal -Art 226-Subordinate Judiciary

14.Panchayat :

Art 243 a to end -Municipalities-Panchayat Raj-Importance of 73rd and 74th Amendment

15.State – Central Relationships :

Legislative Relations-Art245-255-When Union can enact on State List-Traty Making Power.Administrative Relations-Art 256-263-Inter State water Dispute-Inter State CouncilsFinancial-Art 264-300-Sharing of Taxes-FinCommn

16.New Service :

Art 312-Powers of Rajya Sabha-AI Judicial Service

17.UPSC :

Art 315-323-Set Up-Qualfn-Powers and Functions

18.Tribunals :

Art 323A &B-Administrative-Other tribunals

19.Election Commission :

Art 324-329-Powwrs-Electoral Laws-People Rep Act-New Schemes

20.Minorities :

Art 330-342-Special Provisions Relating toBC, SC ,ST and other Weaker Sections

21.Official Language :

Art 343-351-Official Languages-Use of English-Languages in Courts-Mother Tongue Education

22.Emergency :

3 Kinds of Emergencies-Art 352-360-National-Effects-When can proclaim,Duration Art356-Effects-S.R.Bommai’s CaseArt

23.Misc :

Art 316-367

24.Amendments :

Art 368-3 Methods-Special Majority-Ratification by States-Judicial Review-Basic Structures-42nd

25.Schedule 1

Number of States and UT-Art3&4-No amendment

26.Schedule 2

Salaries of High Dignitaries

27.Schedule 3

Forms

28.Schedule 4

Representation of States in Rajya Sabha

29.Schedule 5

Administration of Scheduled Areas-Art 244

30.Schedule 6

Administration of Tribal Areas-Art 244(2) and 275(1)

31.Schedule 7

Union -State-Concurrent Lists-Subjects-Art 246

32.Schedule 8

Official Languages-18-Art 344(1) and 345

33.Schedule 9

Art31B-Validity excluded from Court’s Review

34.Schedule 10

Anti Defection-Art 102 and 191-Exemptions

35.Schedule 11

Panchayat Raj-243 G36.Schedule 12 Municipalities-243W

 

TNPSC

 

TNPSC − TAMIL NADU PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION, the Tamil Nadu State recruitment commission appoints through examinations, officers for Group − I, Group − II and VAO (village Administrative Officer) regularly.

Differs according to the Posts mentioned in the Notification.

Services	Education Qualification	Age
		Category	Minimum Age	Maximum Age
Group I	Any Degree (10+2+3)	As per the Notification to be issued
Group II	Any Degree (10+2+3)	As per the Notification to be issued
Group IV	Must have passed S.S.L.C Public Examination or its equivalent with eligibility for admission to Higher Secondary Courses of Studies (or) to College Courses of studies.	SC/SC (Arunthathiyars), ST and Destitute Widows of All castes	18 years	35 years
		MBC / Denotified Communities, BC and BC (Muslims)	18 years	32 years
		Others	18 years	30 years
		For the persons who are trained in Survey in ITI in Tamil Nadu, in respect of posts of Field Surveyor and Draughtsman only	18 years	35 years

Group IV Note:

• i. No maximum age limit for candidates belonging to SCs, SC(A)s, STs, MBCs / DCs, BCs, BCMs and Destitute Windows of all castes who possess a General Educational Qualification which is higher than the Minimum General Educational Qualification (i.e. who have passed P.U.C / H.S.C /Diploma / Degree).
• ii. “Others” [i.e Candidates not belonging to SCs, SC(A)s, STs, MBCs/DCs, BCs and BCMs] who have put in 5 years of service in the State / Central Government are not eligible even if they are within the age limit.
• iii. The Technical and Non-Technical Staff of TANSI who have faced retrenchment and have not been absorbed in the Government / Corporations / Undertakings may also apply, if they are otherwise qualified except age. The relevant age rule will be relaxed by the Government in their favour if they come up for selection.

List of services

Group I

• Deputy Collector
• Deputy Superintendent of Police (Category-I)
• Deputy Registrar of Co-operative Societies
• Assistant Director of Rural Development Department.
• Assistant Commissioner in the Tamil Nadu Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments Administration Department
• Assistant Commissioner – Commercial Tax officer
• District Registrar
• Divisional Officer in Fire and Rescue services Department
• Assistant Conservator of Forest
• District Employment Officer

Group II

• Municipal Commissioner, – Grade-II
• Accountant in the Treasuries and Accounts Department
• Assistant in Rural Development and Panchayat Raj
• Assistant Section Officer (Other than Law and Finance Departments)
• Assistant Section Officer in finance Department
• Accountant in the Treasuries and Accounts Department
• Tamil Nadu Municipal Commissioner Subordinate Service
• Assistant Section Officer (Law Department) in Secretariat.
• Assistant Section Officer in the Office of the Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission
• Probation Officer – Tamil Nadu Social Defense Subordinate Service
• Probation Officer Tamil Nadu Jail Subordinate Service
• Junior Employment Officer in Employment and Training Department
• Assistant Inspector of Labor – Tamil Nadu Labor Subordinate Service
• Sub-Registrar Grade − II – Tamil Nadu Registration Subordinate Service
• Women Welfare Officer
• Supervisor of Industrial Cooperatives in the Industries and Commerce Department
• Audit Inspector in the Audit Wing of Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments Administration Department.
• Assistant in Revenue Department
• Executive Officer Grade-II in Town Panchayats Department
• Assistant Commercial tax officer
• Senior Inspector of Co-operative services
• Audit Inspector
• Supervisor of industrial Co-operatives
• Junior Technical Assistant in civil supplies and Consumer Protection Department
• Junior Co-operative Auditor
• Revenue Assistant
• Audit Assistant
• Personal Clerk in the finance Department
• ssistant in various dept in various Tamil Nadu ministerial Services
• Assistant Section Officer (Other than Law and Finance Departments)
• Motor Vehicles Inspector, Grade-II

Group IV

• Junior Assistant
• Typist
• Steno Typist − Grade III
• EXECUTIVE OFFICER, GRADE-III in the Tamil Nadu Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments Administration Department.
• Junior Assistant (Security)
• Bill Collector Grade-I
• Junior Assistant (Non-Security)

 

 

Entrance Exam Tips

The student gets confused about what to study, which things to focus on, which reference material to use etc.

Below information will be useful for them to get success in the exam.

Entrance Exam Details

Duration : 3 Hours

Section A: General Studies Paper I Syllabus for Preliminary Examination (History, polity, geography, science and technology and economics)

What to prepare for General Studies: 

Major role questions will come from the different subjects like Economics, Politics, History, Geography and science etc. students must have to know the basic knowledge of this subjects. Don’t restrict your preparation with the topic, numbers and years. Must have to reach bottom level to top level concepts of a particular topic. Most of the questions indirect question is asking in this paper. This could be difficult for the general prepared students. Students must have to cover the relevant topics to answer questions from this section.

 40 Objective questions

40 Marks

1) History

i) Don’t memorize the history topics with numbers and years.( Question will not asked by years)

ii) You need to understand the concept. (Refer the below chart)

ii) Divided the History syllabus into three parts Ancient, Medieval and Modern period. (Please refer the ncert books 9,10,11 and 12 with below chart)

 

2) Geography

i) Its not required to know the height of the peak,  but you should know the different between two peaks.

Prepare your studies with below topics.

(i) Physical Geography

(ii) Human Geography

(iii) Geography of the World

(iv) Geographical Thought

(v) Techniques of Geographical Analysis

(vi) Indian Geography

(vii) Map Pointing

3) Economics

4) Polity

5) Science and Technology

Please refer the NCERT books link

Previous year question paper, these are enough to prepare for our
entrance for GS part

Section B: General Studies Paper II CSAT (Aptitude paper)

What to prepare for CSAT:

Csat paper will helps the candidates to get good score. This Paper is consist of the Decision making Inter Personal Skills, Logical reasoning  General mental ability and probability questions with 10th standard level, students must have to dedicate time for this subject. So the Candidates will get good marks in this section.

 30 Objective questions

xth standard level

30 Marks

CSAT-Verbal & Non-verbal reasoning
Previous year question paper

Section C:  Current Affairs ( Written Paper)

(Examiners will pay special attention to the candidate’s grasp of his material, its relevance to the subject chosen, and to his ability to think constructively and to present his ideas concisely, logically and effectively.) 

General Tips for reading Newspaper

It’s a good idea to make notes while reading newspapers and studying books and other reference material. This helps when you are revising for the exam. While making notes, make sure that you do not copy everything, otherwise the whole purpose gets defeated. The notes should be short, to the point and capture important information. They should serve as a tool to memorize lots of information.

 Do not read more than one magazine. Most of the magazines carry similar (if not same) information, and thus you will end up wasting time. Select any one and stick to it. While reading the magazines, make sure you are reading the portions relevant to UPSC GS only and not for other exams.

Recommended Newspaper

English: The Hindu

Tamil:   Dinamani

The exam is about scoring and qualifying, so if you have trouble in some areas, it’s fine- you do not need to know everything. The major focus should be on consolidating what you know well.

Look at the past papers at least once or twice to get a general idea of what comes and how to extract information from various sources. It is very important to have the test paper at the back of your mind throughout your preparation.

 A collection of historical documents and past periodicals records of Hindu news paper (Click below link for Archive)

 http://www.thehindu.com/navigation/?type=static&page=archive

1) Essay Writing Topics will be taken from Hindu newspaper from last June 2012 to May 2013

2) There will be 6 topics (6 questions)

3) You have to select any two topics and need to write long essay.

4) You can also write the written exam in Tamil, but question will be in English

5) 100 Marks

Section D: Islamic Studies (50 Marks, Written Paper)

1) One essay type question

2) 50 Marks

3) Islamic ethics question.

Personal Interview: 30 Marks

 

Syllabus

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE SYLLABUS FOR GROUP – I & II

General Knowledge

Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other clauses of para 3(ii) (b) above, viz. those coming under the category of Ex-servicemen, persons domiciled in the State of J & K, blind, deaf-mute and orthopaedically handicapped etc. will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the categories.

General Science

Questions on general science will cover general appreciation and understanding of science, including matters of every day observation and experience as may be expected of a well educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific discipline.

History

In History emphasis will be on broad general understanding of the subject in its social, economic, political aspects; social and cultural heritage of India emphasizing unity in diversity.

Geography

In geography emphasis will be on geography of India including the physical, social, economic geography and of the main features of Indian agriculture and natural resources.

Indian Polity and Economy

Questions on Indian Polity and economy will test knowledge on the country’s political, executive, judicial system, panchayat raj, rural and community development, and economic planning in India.

Indian National Movement

Questions on Indian National Movement will be related to the nature and character of the nineteenth century resurgence, growth of nationalism and attainment of independence.

General Mental Ability

General mental ability test will include analysis of classified data, logical and behavioural reasoning, analogies, school arithmetic numerical ability and basic concepts of computers.

Current Events

Current events will include latest developments on all the fields detailed above including science and technology.

Note:

About 20% of the questions in this paper shall be exclusively with reference of Tamil, Tamilnadu, language and literature, culture and heritage of its people.

Syllabus for Group – IV

GENERAL SCIENCE

Will Cover General appreciation and understanding of Science including matters of everyday observations and experience as may be expected of a well educated person who has not made any special study of any scientific discipline. The questions shall be from topics- in Physics, Chemistry and Biology viz.,. Scientific Laws, Scientific instruments, Inventions and Discoveries. Scientists and their contributions. Human Physiology, Diseases, their cause, cure and prevention, DietBaIanced diet, human Genetics, Animals, Mammals and Birds, Environment and Ecology. Elements and Compounds. Acids, Bases and Salts and allied Subjects, Motion, Newtons Laws of Motion – Properties of Matter, Electricity, National Laboratories and other related topics.

HISTORY OF INDIA

Dates and events relating to indus Valley Civilisation, Vedic, Aryan and Sangam Age, Maurya Dynasty, Buddhism and Jainism, Guptas and Vardhanas, Pallvas Cholas and Pandias, Sultanate and Mughal Period. Advent of European powers specially the British and other related topics.

GEOGRAPHY OF INDIA

Earth, Motions of Earth, Rotation and Revolution and their effects, structure of Earth, Natural regions of India, Weather, Monsoon and Climate. Rainfall, Natural Calamities, Indian Towns and Places, Hill Stations, National parks, Major Ports, Crops and Minerals, Location of Major Industries, Forests and Wildlife, Population distribution in India and other related topics.

ECONOMICS AND COMMERCE

Agriculture, Major crops and crop pattern in India, Industrial Development, Major medium, small scale and cottage Industries of Tamil Nadu. Village and Rural Development in India. Housing, Drinking water and other developmental schemes – price policy, Inflation, population and unemployment problems, imports and exports

INDIAN POLITY

Indian Constitution, Salient features, citizenship, elections, Parliament and State Legislature, Executive set up of States, Judiciary system, Local self Governments, Centre – State Relations, Language Policy, Foreign policy.

INDIAN POLITY

Indian Constitution, Salient features, citizenship, elections, Parliament and State Legislature, Executive set up of States, Judiciary system, Local self Governments, Centre – State Relations, Language Policy, Foreign policy.

INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT

National freedom movement and attainment of independence – contribution-of National Leaders like Bal Ganga Dhar Tilak, Gopalakrishna Gokhale, Dada Bhai Nauvroji Mahatma Gandhi Jawaral Nehru and others – Role of Tamil Nadu in Freedom Movement, Bharathiyar, V.O. C, Subramaniya Siva, Rajaji and others.

CURRENT EVENTS

Latest development in Science and technology, political developments in India, New developments in Trade, Transport and communication, historical events. Fine arts like dance, drama, films, painting, major literary works Games and Sports, National, International awards, National and International organisations, Abbreviations, who is who, Books and Authors, General Terminology, India and its Neighbours, present day India and other related topics.

MENTAL ABILITY TESTS

These tests are ment to verify the candidate’s capability to draw conclusions through, inductive or deductive reasoning from tables and charts. It will include elementary problems from school mathematics.

Note:

Some of the questions asked in this paper shall be exclusively with reference to Tamil Nadu.

 

Please find the below link for TNPSC details

 

INDIAN POLITY MCQs

7:44 AM  ASHU INSAN  2 COMMENTS

 

This is a set of 100 Indian Polity MCQs. these questions are very very helpful in your preparation. so if you like this website then please don’t forget to leave valuable comments.

 

1.Total number of members in a Legislative Council should not exceed that of a Legislative Assembly ?
(a) 40182
(b) 40181
(c) 40212
(d) 40180
Answer: 40181


2. For those Union Territories, which have no Legislative Councils of their own, laws are passed by
(a) Parliament
(b) Appointed Administrator
(c) Union Ministry
(d) President
Answer: Parliament


3. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by
(a) Constitutional amendement
(b) President
(c) None of these
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer: None of these


4.  The first woman film star nominated/elected to the Rajya Sabha was
(a) Nargis Dutt
(b) Jayalalitha
(c) Vijayanthimala
(d) Hema Malini
Answer; Nargis Dutt


5. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Bills pertaining to the removal of the President by impeachment
(b) Bills pertaining to the powers of the Supreme Court ot State Judiciary
(c) Bills bringing a state under the President’s Rule.
(d) Money Bills
Answer: Money Bills


6.  A party having 36 members will avoid disqualification under the provisions of the Anti Defection Law if the number of members crossing the floor is at least
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer: 12


7.  Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was introduced in India by the
(a) Minto-Morley Reforms
(b) Independence Act, 1947
(c) Constitution of India
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: Constitution of India


8.  In which of the following systems of Government, can the Government be removed through no-confidence motion passed by the Parliament ?
(a) Federal
(b) Unitary
(c) Parliamentry
(d) Presidential
Answer; Parliamentry


9. An ordinance promulgated by the President
(a) Will lapse automatically after 2 months
(b) Will continue to be in force till is superseded by an Act of the Parliament
(c) Will automatically become a law after 6 months
(d) Will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks from the meeting of the Parliament
Answer: Will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks from the meeting of the Parliament


10. The President can promulgated an ordinance
(a) When there is a conflict between the two Houses regarding a particular bill
(b) When a bill passed by the Lok Sabha is not passed by the Rajya Sabha
(c) When both the Houses of the Parliament are not in session.
(d) When the Lok Sabha has been dissolved
Answer: When both the Houses of the Parliament are not in session.


11.  If a Minister of a state wants to resign, to whom he should address the letter of resignation ?
(a) Governor of the State
(b) Leader of his political party
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
Answer: Chief Minister


12. A member of Lok Sabha has to ask a question in the Parliament which has been listed as a starred question. To this he will be given
(a) No answer
(b) An immediate answer
(c) A written answer
(d) An oral answer
Answer; A written answer


13. Amongst the following for whose removal Parliament’s resolution is not needed ?
(a) Judge of Supreme Court
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) Governor of a State
Answer: Judge of Supreme Court


14.  When the Governor receives a Bill passed by the State Legislative Assembly, which of the following courses would be most appropriate for the Governor as an agent of the Centre ?
(a) Exercise veto over the Bill
(b) Refer the Bill to the President
(c) Give assent to the Bill
(d) Keep the Bill pending
Answer: Refer the Bill to the President


15.  To which of the following Bills the President must accord his sanction without sending it back for fresh consideration ?
(a) Finance Bills
(b) Bill seeking Amendment to the Constitution
(c) Ordinary Bills
(d) Bills passed by both the Houses of the Parliament
Answer: Finance Bills


16. In the case of a conflict between the Centre and a State in respect of a subject included in the Concurrent List
(a) The law which had been passed first would prevail
(b) The Union Law prevails
(c) The State Law prevails
(d) The matter is resolved by the Supreme Court
Answer; The Union Law prevails


17. Who is the highest Law Officer of a state ?
(a) Attorney General
(b) Secretary General Law Department
(c) Solicitor General
(d) Advocate General
Answer: Advocate General


18.  What is zero hour ?
(a) When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha
(b) When matters of utmost importance are raised
(c) When the proposals of the opposition are considered
(d) Interval between the morning and afternoon sessions
Answer: When matters of utmost importance are raised


19. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed by a resolution
(a) None of these
(b) Passed by a simple majority of its total member present
(c) Passed by 2/3rd majority of its total members present
(d) Moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok Sabha
Answer: Passed by a simple majority of its total member present


20. A Bill refferred to a joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament is to be passed by
(a) 3/4th majority
(b) Absolute majority of total membership
(c) A simple majority
(d) 2/3rd majority
Answer: A simple majority


21. Which of the following Bills was discussed in the Lok Sabha but was withdraw before it could be discussed in the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Benami Transaction Bill
(b) Hill Council Bill
(c) Newspaper Employees Bill
(d) Defamation Bill
Answer: Defamation Bill


22. Which of the following has benned floor crossing by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature ?
(a) National Security Act
(b) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
(c) 52nd Constitution Amendment Act
(d) People’s Representation Act
Answer: 52nd Constitution Amendment Act


23.  As decided by the Government of India, a member of Parliament would get what amount of money to spend on development activities in his/her constituency ?
(a) Rs 1 crore
(b) Rs 2 crore
(c) Rs 1 lakh
(d) Rs 10 lakh
Answer: Rs 1 crore


24. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha respectively is
(a) 500 and 250
(b) 537 and 275
(c) 525 and 238
(d) 545 and 250
Answer: 545 and 250


25. Anglo Indian representatives in the Lok Sabha are nominated in terms of the Article
(a) 80
(b) 333
(c) 370
(d) 331
Answer: 331


26. The question of disqualification of a member of the State Legislature shall be decided by
(a) The Governor in consultation with the Election Commission
(b) State Legislative Assembly
(c) The Governor in consultation with the President
(d) State Legislative Council
Answer: The Governor in consultation with the Election Commission


27. The Union President can directly disallow a State Legislation
(a) In case of any bill
(b) Both (b) and ( c ) above
(c) In case of money bills
(d) In case of bills reserved by the Governor for President’s assent
Answer: In case of bills reserved by the Governor for President’s assent 


28. Who among the following has the final power to maintain order within the House of People ?
(a) Speaker
(b) Chief of Security Staff
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Marshal of the House
Answer: Speaker


29.  Who among the following fixes the salaries and the allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha ?
(a) Council of Ministers
(b) Cabinet
(c) Parliament
(d) President
Answer: Parliament


30. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker continues in office till a new
(a) Government is formed
(b) Speaker is elected when the new House meets
(c) Lok Sabha is formed
(d) Speaker is appointed by the President
Answer: Speaker is elected when the new House meets


31. If a member of Parliament voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign country,
(a) He will be penalized
(b) He will have a choice of renouncing either
(c) He will continue to be a member of Parliament
(d) He will be disqualified from membership
Answer: He will be disqualified from membership


32. Which of the following is also called the House of Elders ?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Vidhan Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Gram Sabha
Answer; Lok Sabha


33. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President
Answer: Speaker of Lok Sabha


34. Who among the following is a legal advisor of the State Government as provided by the Constitution ?
(a) Attorney General
(b) Public Prosecutor
(c) Solicitor General
(d) Advocate General
Answer: Public Prosecutor


35. Members of the Union Public Service Commission can function as members upto the age of
(a) 58 years
(b) 65 years
(c) 62 years
(d) 60 years
Answer: 60 years


36. The rank of the different Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers is determined by the
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet Secretary
Answer: President


37. The Legislative Council in a state can be created or disbanded by the
(a) State Legislative Assembly alone
(b) President on recommendation of the Governor
(c) Parliament alone
(d) Parliament on recommendation of the State Legislature
Answer: State Legislative Assembly alone


38. The maximum number of Anglo Indians who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2
Answer: 2


39. In the case of disagreement on a Bill, in the two Houses of Parliament
(a) A special Parliamentary Committee is formed to resolve the situation.
(b) The President casts a deciding vote.
(c) The Prime Minister intervenes.
(d) A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is convened
Answer; A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is convened


40. What is the maximum number of elected members in a State Assembly ?
(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 250
(d) 300
Answer: 500


41.  Which of the following is not correct regarding a Money Bill ?
(a) It can be passed by the Lok Sabha even if the Rajya Sabha rejects it.
(b) It requires the prior approval of the President.
(c) It is deemed to have been passed by both Houses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days.
(d) It can be introduced in either House of Parliament
Answer: It can be introduced in either House of Parliament


42.  Which parliamentary committee in India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the Opposition ?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Privileges Committee
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) Committee on Government Assurances
Answer: Public Accounts Committee


43.  Who presides over the Lok Sabha if neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available ?
(a) A member of the House of People appointed by the President
(b) The senior most member of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) A member chosen by Council of Ministers.
(d) The senior most member of the Lok Sabha.
Answer; The senior most member of the Lok Sabha.


44. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha ?
(a) President
(b) Leader of Opposition
(c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Vice- President
Answer: Vice- President


45. When a bill passed by Parliament is sent to the President for his assent, which option is not true to him ?
(a) He may return it to Parliament for reconsideration .
(b) He may amend it.
(c) He may decline to sign it
(d) He may sign it
Answer: He may decline to sign it


46. The Union Territories get representation in
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) None of these
(c) Both Houses of Parliament
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer; Both Houses of Parliament


47. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha Who is the Chief of its Secretariat is
(a) Elected by both Houses of Parliament
(b) Appointed by the President
(c) Appointed by the Speaker
(d) Elected by the Lok Sabha
Answer: Appointed by the Speaker


48. The Joint Parliament Committee to examine irregularities and fraudulent manipulations of the Securities Scam consists of
(a) 15 members of Lok Sabha and 15 of Rajya Sabha
(b) 30 members of Lok Sabha and 30 of Rajya Sabha
(c) 20 members of Lok Sabha and 10 of Rajya Sabha
(d) 25 members of Lok Sabha and 15 of Rajya Sabha
Answer: 20 members of Lok Sabha and 10 of Rajya Sabha


49. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India ?
(a) 13
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 11
Answer: 12


50. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from his office, if the House of the People passes a resolution to this effect by
(a) Absolute majority of all the then members of the House
(b) Simple majority of members present and voting and absolute majority of all the then members of the House
(c) 2/3rd majority of members present and voting.
(d) Simple majority of members present and voting
Answer: Absolute majority of all the then members of the House 


51. In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the
(a) Member of the Lok Sabha specifically elected for the purpose
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) Vice- President
Answer: Speaker of Lok Sabha


52. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
(a) Nominated by the President
(b) Elected by Parliament and State Legislatures jointly
(c) Elected by members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) Elected by the members of Rajya Sabha
Answer: Elected by members of both Houses of Parliament


53. The time gap between two sessions of the Parliament should not exceed
(a) 3 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 9 months
(d) 6 months
Answer: 6 months


54. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are held to
(a) Elect the President of India
(b) Adopt a Constitution amending Bill
(c) Elect the Vice President of India
(d) Consider and pass a bill on which two Houses disagree
Answer: Consider and pass a bill on which two Houses disagree


55. One third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every
(a) Second year
(b) Fifth year
(c) One year
(d) Third year
Answer: Second year


 56. A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha has to be passed by Rajya Sabha within
(a) 3 months
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 1 month
Answer: 14 days


57. Which of the following is not a Standing Committee of the Parliament ?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Committee on Welfare of SC’s and ST’s
(d) Committee on Public Accounts
Answer: Committee on Public Accounts 


58. For raising Half-an-Hour discussion in a House of Parliament, a notice in writing has to be given to the
(a) Secretary of Department of Parliamentary Affairs
(b) Minister concerned
(c) Secretary General of the House
(d) Presiding Officer of the House
Answer; Secretary General of the House


59. What is the minimum age for election / appointment as member of the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) 25 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Answer: 30 years


60. Parliament of India is composed of
(a) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
(b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha only
(d) Rajya Sabha only
Answer: Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President


61.  Maximum number of M.P.s from backward communities are elected from which state ?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Nagaland
Answer: Bihar


62.  In Parliamentary government, Ministers remain in office so long as they enjoy
(a) Confidence of the popular chamber of legislature
(b) Popular support
(c) Confidence of the upper house of the legislature
(d) Support of the armed forces
Answer; Confidence of the popular chamber of legislature


63. A bill for alteration of boundaries of states shall not be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of
(a) The legislatures of the states concerned
(b) President
(c) The presiding officers of both Houses of Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: The legislatures of the states concerned


64. What type of Party system has been evolved in India ?
(a) Single Party
(b) Party less
(c) Bi- party
(d) Multi – Party
Answer: Multi – Party


64. Amongst the questions allowed by the Speaker, which one is regarded as the most important ?
(a) Starred
(b) Supplementary
(c) Short Notice
(d) Unstarred
Answer: Short Notice


66. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the House ?
(a) Whenever the House desires
(b) Whenever his party directs
(c) Only in the event of equality of votes
(d) Whenever he desires
Answer; Only in the event of equality of votes


67. According to the Constitution of India the maximum number of members representing the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha cannot exceed
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 10
(d) 15
Answer: 20


68. The Government has set up a high power Committee of 20 members of Lok Sabha and 10 members of Rajya Sabha to examine
(a) Securities scam
(b) Sharing of river water
(c) Protection of Human rights
(d) Protection of environment
Answer: Securities scam


69. In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, who presides over the deliberations of the Lok Sabha ?
(a) Oldest members of the House
(b) One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons nominated by the Speaker
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer: One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons nominated by the Speaker


70. What is the minimum age for being the member of the Parliament ?
(a) 45 years
(b) 50 years
(c) None of these
(d) 40 years
Answer; None of these


71. Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it ?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) Solicitor- General of India
Answer: Attorney General of India


72. How many members of the Lok Sabha must support a motion of no confidence in the government, before it can be admitted by the Speaker ?
(a) 50
(b) 35
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer: 50


73. The Constitution of India does not mentioned the post of
(a) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Deputy Prime Minister
Answer: The Deputy Prime Minister


74. To be a member of the Lok Sabha a person has to be
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 27 years
(d) 30 years
Answer; 25 years


75. Appointment of the members of the Council of Ministers is made by the President
(a) In his own discretion
(b) On the advice of the Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) On the advice of the Vice- President
(d) On the advice of the Prime Minister
Answer: On the advice of the Prime Minister


76. Who administers the oath of office to the President ?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer: Chief Justice of India


77. The members of the State Legislative Assembly are elected for what period ?
(a) 2 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 5 years
Answer: 5 years


78. Criterion for a regional party to be recognised as a national party is
(a) To get 1/10th of the seats in the Parliament
(b) To be recognised in at least 4 states
(c) To be recognised in at least 3 states
(d) To get 1/10th of the seats in Lok Sabha
Answer: To be recognised in at least 4 states


79. Money Bill can be introduced in
(a) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
(b) None of these
(c) Lok Sabha only
(d) Rajya Sabha only
Answer: Lok Sabha only


80. Who among the following decides whether particular bill is a Money Bill or not ?
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Answer: Speaker of Lok Sabha


81. Which of the following states does not have a bicameral legislature ?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar
Answer: Rajasthan


82. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the session for
(a) 60 days
(b) 120 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 90 days
Answer; 60 days


83. Who presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice – President
Answer: Vice – President


84. A candidate to become a member of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than
(a) 25 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 21 years
Answer: 30 years


85. Public Accounts Committee is a
(a) Select Committee of Lok Sabha
(b) Joint Committee of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) Standing Committee of Rajya Sabha
(d) Sub Committee
Answer: Standing Committee of Rajya Sabha


86. The Rajya Sabha has a life of
(a) 7 years
(b) Permanency
(c) 2 years
(d) 6 years
Answer; Permanency


87. The Governor is appointed by the
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chief Justice
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: President


88. The budget is presented to the Parliament on
(a) The last day of March
(b) 1st April
(c) The last day of February
(d) 15th March
Answer; The last day of February


89. The term of Lok Sabha is normally
(a) 5 years
(b) 2 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 6 years
Answer: 5 years


90. The Constitution provides for the nomination to the Lok Sabha two members belonging to the community of
(a) Syrian Christians
(b) Scheduled Castes
(c) Parsis
(d) Anglo-Indians
Answer; Anglo-Indians


91. The legislative powers are vested in the
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
Answer: Parliament


92. Which authority recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the 
states out of the Consolidated Fund of India ?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Inter State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Finance Commission
Answer; Finance Commission


93. Which are the two States (other than U.P.) having maximum representation in Lok Sabha ?
(a) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
(b) Bihar and Tamil Nadu
(c) Bihar and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Bihar and Maharashtra
Answer: Bihar and Maharashtra


94. The term of the Lok Sabha
(a) Can be extended for another full term of 5 years.
(b) Can be extended for an unlimited period
(c) Can be extended by 1 year at a time
(d) Cannot be extended
Answer; Can be extended by 1 year at a time


95. How many times can the passed by Parliament ?
(a) Twice
(b) Never
(c) Thrice
(d) Once
Answer: Once


96. Vote on Account means legislative vote
(a) On the Appropriation Bill
(b) On the Finance Bill
(c) Authorising expenditure in respect of demands for grants pending the passing of the Appropriation Act
(d) In respect of the report of audit and accounts submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General
Answer: Authorising expenditure in respect of demands for grants pending the passing of the Appropriation Act


97. Which of the following committees does not consist of any member from the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) Public Grievances Committee
Answer: Estimates Committee

98. Recognition to a political party is accorded by
(a) The Election Commission
(b) A Committee of Whips
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha in the legislative assemblies in the case of regional parties
(d) The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Answer; The Election Commission

99. The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee is
(a) Appointed by Speaker
(b) Elected by members of PAC
(c) Elected by Union Cabinet
(d) Appointed by President
Answer: Appointed by Speaker

100.  A Party in India in order to be recognised as official opposition in the Indian Parliament should have least how many seats ?
(a) 1/6th
(b) 1/10th
(c) 1/3rd
(d) 1/4th
Answer: 1/10th

 

Thanks n Regards

Jeevanandam K